Am working on a local production of the musical based on the 1980s movie "Footloose." I know of lots of towns called "Beaumont," but the fictional town in the movie is pronounced the same, but spelled oddly.
Anyone know why?
Posted by StevenHW (Member # 509) on :
I'm guessing that the filmmakers didn't want to catch any flack from the Mayors and City Council members of the various Beaumont towns. They might have possibly complained that the movie might not accurately reflect the town itself, or that it makes the town look bad.
Either that, or they didn't want the Beaumont towns to "compete" to be the movie's setting, not unlike the TV show "The Simpsons". The TV show was takes place in Springfield, but with no state mentioned! Posted by P.S. It's Paul.... (Member # 1022) on :
It's most likely the first reason, Steven. The thing about Footloose is that whilst the drive to ban dancing, music etc within the town is driven by John Lithgow's character, the rest of the townspeople really don't come across as very strong at all, because they just appear to lie down and accept it. Even when someone (Ren) stands up to him, they seem to vacillate between the two opinions in a very weak-minded way.
The last thing the director would want to do is to annoy a bunch of potential money-spenders by linking his fictional town with theirs.
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